This is really a math problem with a small amount of coding in it's presentation.
Let's say you have the following functions:
Int32 func(Int32 x);
Int32 inv(Int32 x);
inv is the inverse of func. That is, inv(func(x)) == x for all x.
Show that applying func (2^32)! - 1 times gives the same result as applying inv.
Let's say you have the following functions:
Int32 func(Int32 x);
Int32 inv(Int32 x);
inv is the inverse of func. That is, inv(func(x)) == x for all x.
Show that applying func (2^32)! - 1 times gives the same result as applying inv.
